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  1. Jan 4, 2022 · If He became sin for us does not mean Jesus was sin, or a sinner, or guilty of sin, the proper interpretation can only be found in the doctrine of imputation. This is confirmed by the second part of 2 Corinthians 5:21: “So that in him we might become the righteousness of God.”. To impute something is to ascribe or attribute it to someone.

  2. Feb 17, 2014 · Jesus is the only human who “did not know sin.”. He never sinned, and both he and his closest followers, Peter and John, explicitly attested to this holiness (John 8:46; 1 Pet. 2:22; 1 John 3:5). Yet God made him “to be sin.”. Paul’s language is careful. He did not say Jesus became a sinner, which would be untrue.

    • Kendell Easley
    • What Is The Context of 2 Corinthians 5:21?
    • What Does 'He Became Sin Who Knew No Sin' Mean?
    • Supporting Bible Verses That Jesus Knew No Sin
    • What Is The Righteousness of God?
    • Did Jesus Die For The Sins of The World?

    I believe that to truly understand this passage we need to understand the surrounding context. Otherwise, we can easily make this verse say something other than what Paul intended. In verses 11-15 of this chapter, Paul expressed his motivation for sharing the Gospelof Christ. He said that “Christ’s love compels him.” Why? Because he was convinced t...

    As the above discussion has shown, 2 Corinthians 5:11-6:2 is about reconciliation. Specifically what God has done to reconcile a fallen humanity to himself. And 2 Corinthians 5:21is really the key verse in this discussion of reconciliation. Here, Paul says that “God made him who had no sin to be sin for us so that in him we might become the righteo...

    1 Peter 2:22: "He committed no sin, neither was deceit found in his mouth." Hebrews 4:15: "For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin." 1 John 3:5: "You know that he appeared to take away sins, and in him there is no sin." John 3:16-17: "...

    Isaiah tells us that “all our righteous acts are like filthy rags” (Isaiah 64:6). And Paul quotes Psalm 14:3 to say that there is no one who is righteous (Romans 3:10). All the righteousness that humans are capable of falls short of the righteousness that God demands. But the result of Jesus being made sin was “that in him we might become the right...

    But this discussion on the atonement raises a question that is often discussed and debated. Christ was made sin for us. But who is the “us” that Paul refers to here? Did Jesus die for the sins of the whole world? Or only for the sins of some? The context of this passage, as mentioned above, concerns reconciliation. Paul expressed that God was recon...

  3. A: If Jesus had only been an ordinary man like everyone else who ever lived, then you’d be right — He, too would have been a sinner. No matter who we are, we all — without exception — commit sin and break God’s law. As the Bible says, “There is no one who is righteous, not even one” (Romans 3:10). But Jesus wasn’t only a man.

  4. Dec 29, 2023 · That Jesus was Mary’s biological son is a significant biblical assertion. It fulfills prophecy, confirms that Jesus’ birth was truly miraculous, and has strong spiritual implications. At the same time, Jesus was without sin, so many wonder how Jesus could be Mary’s biological son yet be without sin (Hebrew 4:15).

  5. Dec 5, 2019 · Galatians 4:4-5 says “when the set time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under the law, to redeem those under the law, that we might receive adoption to sonship.”. The ...

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  7. May 4, 2021 · That’s how some people say they feel when they read the apostle Paul’s statement in 2 Corinthians 5:21 when he said Jesus knew no sin yet became sin for us. On its surface, it sounds like a ...

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